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2025 Updated Verified 1z0-1080-25 Downloadable Printable Exam Dumps [Q66-Q87]

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2025 Updated Verified 1z0-1080-25 Downloadable Printable Exam Dumps

The Ultimate Oracle 1z0-1080-25 Dumps PDF Review

NEW QUESTION # 66
What feature can Service Administrators use to automatically complete all the actions required to create an exact copy of the current application in a target environment?
This includes the removal of the current application and data, if any, from the target environment.

  • A. Migration Backup
  • B. Replicate Snapshot
  • C. Clone Snapshot
  • D. Migration Export

Answer: C

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, Service Administrators can use the Clone Snapshot feature to create an exact copy of the current application in a target environment. This feature automates all actions required for cloning, including removing the existing application and data in the target environment (if any) and replacing it with a snapshot of the source environment. The process involves exporting a snapshot from the source, deleting the target environment's current application and data, and then importing and applying the snapshot to recreate the application identically.
* A. Replicate Snapshot: This is incorrect because "Replicate Snapshot" is not a defined feature in Oracle Planning. Replication typically implies duplicating data without necessarily overwriting the target, which doesn't align with the requirement of removing existing content.
* B. Migration Export: This is incorrect because Migration Export only exports application artifacts (e.g., metadata, data) to a file for manual transfer or backup, but it does not automate the removal of the target environment's content or the import process.
* C. Clone Snapshot: This is correct. The Clone Snapshot feature, available under the Environment management tools, fully automates the cloning process, including deletion of the target environment's application and data, followed by the recreation of the source application.
* D. Migration Backup: This is incorrect because Migration Backup creates a backup file for recovery purposes but does not involve cloning or overwriting a target environment.
The Oracle Planning 2024 documentation specifies that Clone Snapshot is designed for such end-to-end automation, making it the ideal choice for Service Administrators to replicate an application across environments efficiently.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Managing Environments with Clone Snapshot" (docs.
oracle.com, Published 2024-09-15).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Cloning Environments in Planning" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-
10-20, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 67
Which three are use cases for data maps?

  • A. To allow users to drill back to the data in a different cube
  • B. To integrate data between Planning modules
  • C. To integrate data between custom plan types and Planning modules
  • D. To push data from a planning cube to a reporting cube
  • E. To create a replicated partition between cubes

Answer: B,D


NEW QUESTION # 68
After enabling and configuring Financials, which of the following is a recommended post-configuration task?

  • A. Disable features that you do not plan to use
  • B. Plan headcount and detailed employee compensation by employee, job code, or both
  • C. Specify the days in Period and to modify account signage for alternate reporting methods
  • D. Map and rename custom dimensions in Financials that will be used to integrate with other modules

Answer: D

Explanation:
After enabling and configuring the Financials module in Oracle Planning 2024, post-configuration tasks are recommended to optimize its functionality and integration. The most relevant task among the options is:
* A. Plan headcount and detailed employee compensation by employee, job code, or both: Incorrect. This is a Workforce module task, not a post-configuration task for Financials, which focuses on revenue, expenses, and financial statements, not employee-level planning.
* B. Specify the days in Period and to modify account signage for alternate reporting methods: Incorrect.
While period setup occurs during initial configuration (e.g., Planning and Forecast Preparation), modifying account signage or days in periods is not a recommended post-configuration task-it's either part of initial setup or an ad-hoc adjustment.
* C. Map and rename custom dimensions in Financials that will be used to integrate with other modules:
Correct. Post-configuration, mapping and renaming custom dimensions (e.g., Department, Product) ensures seamless integration with other modules like Workforce or Projects. This task aligns dimensions across the application, a common best practice after enabling Financials.
* D. Disable features that you do not plan to use: Incorrect. Disabling features is not a typical post- configuration task; features are enabled/disabled during initial configuration via the Configure card, not as a follow-up step.
The Oracle documentation highlights mapping custom dimensions as a recommended post-configuration task to facilitate data integration and reporting, making C the correct answer.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Post-Configuration Tasks for Financials" (docs.oracle.
com, Published 2024-09-20).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Configuring Financials and Integration" (docs.oracle.com, Published
2023-11-10, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 69
Your administrator set up a Planning job using the integration Pipeline job type. Which statement about using Pipeline is true?

  • A. Pipelines help you to organize, track and prioritize your workload.
  • B. Pipelines structure the workflow and formalize authority levels as you prepare budget data.
  • C. Pipelines give you an overview to key information and let you enter changes and save data.
  • D. Pipelines help you to orchestrate Oracle Enterprise Performance Management Cloud jobs across instance from one location.
  • E. Pipelines structure provide quick insights into data that guide your decision and actions.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 70
You can override expense lines in Financials with the more detailed values that Workforce stores. What steps would you take to move the detailed values to Financials?

  • A. On the Financials Integration Summary form, from the Actions menu, select the Rollup business rule.
  • B. In data maps, for Compensation Data, synchronize and then push the data.
  • C. In data maps, for Financial Statement Integration, define how the detailed Workforce accounts roll up into the Financials accounts.
  • D. On the Financials Integration Summary form, calculate compensation data to update the underlying details for Workforce data.

Answer: C

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, integrating detailed Workforce data (such as salary, benefits, and taxes) into Financials involves leveraging out-of-the-box integration features like data maps and Smart Push. To override expense lines in Financials with more detailed values stored in Workforce, the correct approach is to define how Workforce accounts roll up into Financials accounts using the "Financial Statement Integration" data map. This process involves mapping specific Workforce accounts (e.g., payroll taxes, total salary) to corresponding Financials accounts and then synchronizing and pushing the data to update Financials with the detailed values.
Option A is the verified answer because it directly addresses the initial setup required to move detailed Workforce values into Financials by defining the rollup mappings in the Financial Statement Integration data map. After this mapping is configured, administrators can synchronize and push the data to reflect the detailed values in Financials reporting. Option B is incorrect because the Financials Integration Summary form is used to view rolled-up data, not to calculate compensation data for updating underlying Workforce details-this is a Workforce-specific task, not a data movement step. Option C is also incorrect, as there is no "Rollup business rule" explicitly mentioned in the Financials Integration Summary form's Actions menu for this purpose; instead, rollup occurs via data maps. Option D, while related to Compensation Data synchronization, is a narrower action that does not fully address the broader task of moving detailed Workforce values into Financials expense lines, which requires the Financial Statement Integration data map.
The Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation documentation highlights that Financials integrates with Workforce using predefined data maps, such as Financial Statement Integration, to roll up detailed employee expenses into financial reporting, making Option A the most accurate and complete step for this scenario.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Integration Scenarios and Workflow" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-08-19).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Oracle 1Z0-1080-20 Planning 2020 Implementation Essentials" (updated for 2024 workflows).
Oracle Planning Documentation: "Administering and Working with Strategic Workforce Planning" (docs.
oracle.com, Published 2024-12-04).


NEW QUESTION # 71
Which three are benefits of using Groovy rules?

  • A. You can use Groovy rules to dynamically calculate data and add validation checks before saving data on custom composite forms.
  • B. You can use Groovy rules to dynamically generate calculations scripts at run time based on contexts defined in the Groovy script.
  • C. You can use Groovy rules to define member formulas that combine operators, calculations on members in Dimension Editor.
  • D. You can use Groovy rules to perform complex procedural calculations in memory before submitting the results to the database.
  • E. You can use Groovy rules to add validation checks for runtime prompt value before running calculations, add data validation checks before submitting data, and add error handling.

Answer: B,D,E


NEW QUESTION # 72
You want to use Strategic Modeling to quickly model and evaluate financial scenarios.
Which two time period management tasks can you perform in Strategic Modeling?

  • A. Enable the input option for upper-level time periods when you add time details.
  • B. Select and combine periods of years, halves, quarters, months, and weeks for the beginning balance year.
  • C. Configure time periods to reflect the details required by financial model, such as different levels of granularity for different years.
  • D. Create period-to-date, trailing periods, deal periods, and sub periods to record transactions.

Answer: C,D


NEW QUESTION # 73
Which two statements are true regarding what you can do when configuring insights?

  • A. Select either a single type of insight or multiple types of insights.
  • B. Use prediction results as input for generating insights.
  • C. Define insights for up to 1000 data intersections.
  • D. Create and edit data views to customize the display on the dashboard.

Answer: A,B


NEW QUESTION # 74
You are currently making modifications to loaded salary information using the Mass Update forms in Workforce. After making changes, which statements are true when working with Mass Update?

  • A. After modifying salary, you can re-apply configured default assignments for benefits, additional earning and taxes
  • B. After making changes to salary information, you must run the Calculate Compensation business rule before saving data.
  • C. If an existing employee is not loaded from the load file, you won't be able to add their compensation information without first reloading a load file with the existing employee records.
  • D. After making changes to salary information and saving the data on the form a Groovy rule runs to process the changeAfter data.

Answer: A,D


NEW QUESTION # 75
In module-based Planning, you can configure the time frame and granularity for plans, and the forecast for each module. You can have a different time frame and granularity for each module and year.
When configuring Financials, in which component would you configure the time frame and granularity for plans?

  • A. Valid Intersections
  • B. Manage Time Periods
  • C. Seasonality Management
  • D. Planning and Forecast Preparation

Answer: D

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024's module-based Planning, including the Financials module, the time frame (e.g., years) and granularity (e.g., months, weeks) for plans and forecasts are configured to define the planning horizon and periodicity. For Financials, this configuration occurs in:
* A. Planning and Forecast Preparation: Correct. This component is where administrators define the time frame (e.g., start year, number of years) and granularity (e.g., monthly, weekly) for plans and forecasts.
It's a mandatory configuration task executed via the Configure card, allowing module-specific settings.
* B. Manage Time Periods: Incorrect. This is not a standard component in Oracle Planning for setting time frame and granularity; it's a term more aligned with other Oracle systems (e.g., Essbase) or custom period management, not Financials configuration.
* C. Seasonality Management: Incorrect. Seasonality Management deals with distributing data across periods based on patterns (e.g., seasonal trends), not setting the overall time frame or granularity.
* D. Valid Intersections: Incorrect. Valid Intersections define allowable data combinations across dimensions, not the time frame or granularity of plans.
The Oracle documentation specifies that Planning and Forecast Preparation is the component where time- related settings are established for Financials, making A the correct answer.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Configuring Time Frame in Financials" (docs.oracle.
com, Published 2024-10-10).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Planning and Forecast Preparation" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-
11-15, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 76
You want to associate Insights with calendar events to associate with the insights so you can use the in IPM Insights, Auto Predict definitions, and Predictive Planning. Which two statements are true about incorporating events in IPM insights?

  • A. All events are taken into consideration during prediction regardless of active or inactive status.
  • B. Using events helps you plan ahead for the events and take advantage of opportunities by allowing you to see anticipated spikes and falls in the insight data for specific events.
  • C. Events are typically one-off or recurring events that historically led to spikes or declines in data.
  • D. After creating events, you cannot choose to skip the historical data spikes or falls, so that the data for the event is always included in the analysis.
  • E. When you use events, spikes or falls in data are automatically normalized and distributed over the analysis period.

Answer: B,C


NEW QUESTION # 77
You want to analyze past data and predicted data to help you find patterns and insights into data that you might not have found on your own. To accomplish this, you configure Insights with Auto Predict.
Which two are Oracle EPM guidelines for implementing Insights and Auto Predict?

  • A. For future data, create a new insight by leveraging templates that include insight definitions.
  • B. For historical data, there should be at least twice the amount of historical data as the number of prediction periods.
  • C. For future data, first run predictions in a test environment to ensure there is no impact on production data.
  • D. For historical data, create the Insights job using the lowest level of Period members possible so that the greatest amount of historical data can be used.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, configuring Insights with Auto Predict allows users to analyze past and predicted data to uncover patterns and insights. Oracle provides specific guidelines to ensure effective implementation:
* A. For future data, create a new insight by leveraging templates that include insight definitions:
Incorrect. While templates can be used to set up Insights, this is not a specific Oracle guideline for implementing Auto Predict. Auto Predict relies on historical data and predictive algorithms, not predefined insight templates for future data.
* B. For historical data, there should be at least twice the amount of historical data as the number of prediction periods: Correct. Oracle recommends having sufficient historical data-specifically, at least twice the number of periods you intend to predict-to ensure the accuracy of Auto Predict's machine learning algorithms. For example, predicting 12 months requires at least 24 months of historical data.
* C. For historical data, create the Insights job using the lowest level of Period members possible so that the greatest amount of historical data can be used: Incorrect. While granularity matters, Oracle does not mandate using the lowest level of Period members (e.g., days instead of months) as a guideline. The focus is on the quantity of historical data, not necessarily the lowest level of aggregation.
* D. For future data, first run predictions in a test environment to ensure there is no impact on production data: Correct. Oracle advises testing Auto Predict in a non-production environment to validate results and avoid unintended impacts on live data, aligning with best practices for predictive analytics deployment.
The two guidelines-B and D-are explicitly outlined in Oracle's documentation for Insights and Auto Predict to ensure reliable predictions and safe implementation.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Configuring Insights and Auto Predict" (docs.oracle.
com, Published 2024-10-15).


NEW QUESTION # 78
You must assign a Planning user with a Cloud EPM predefined role that allows them to create and administer Planning or Planning Modules and service components. This role should also allow them to grant permissions to other users.
Which of the following predefined role must you assign this Planning user?

  • A. Service Administrator
  • B. Identity Role Administrator
  • C. Approvals Administrator
  • D. System Administrator

Answer: A

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, predefined roles in Cloud EPM determine user permissions. The requirement is for a role that allows a Planning user to create and administer Planning or Planning Modules and service components, as well as grant permissions to other users. Among the options:
* A. System Administrator: Incorrect. This role exists in some Oracle systems but is not a Cloud EPM predefined role specific to Planning. It's too broad and not aligned with EPM terminology.
* B. Approvals Administrator: Incorrect. This role manages approval processes (e.g., workflows) but does not include creating/administering applications or granting permissions beyond approvals.
* C. Identity Role Administrator: Incorrect. While this role manages identity and access (e.g., assigning roles), it does not allow creating or administering Planning applications or service components.
* D. Service Administrator: Correct. The Service Administrator role in Cloud EPM allows users to create and manage Planning applications, configure modules and service components (e.g., forms, rules), and assign permissions to other users via access control.
The Service Administrator role is the highest-level predefined role in Oracle EPM Cloud for Planning, encompassing application management and user permission assignments, making it the correct choice.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Predefined Roles in Cloud EPM" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-08-25).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Managing Users and Roles" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-10-30, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 79
Which two statements are true about approval units?

  • A. Approval units are combinations of scenario, version, and entity or part of an entity.
  • B. You can have up to three scenario/version combinations per approval unit.
  • C. Approval units can also include secondary dimensions within any entity.
  • D. You can set the option in Application Settings to include detailed annotations for approval units.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, approval units manage the review process. The two true statements are:
* A. You can have up to three scenario/version combinations per approval unit: Incorrect. There's no strict limit of three scenario/version combinations per approval unit; multiple combinations are possible based on hierarchy design.
* B. Approval units are combinations of scenario, version, and entity or part of an entity: Correct.
Approval units are defined by Scenario (e.g., Budget), Version (e.g., Working), and Entity (e.g., Department) or entity hierarchies, forming the basis of the approval process.
* C. Approval units can also include secondary dimensions within any entity: Correct. Secondary dimensions (e.g., Product, Project) can be added to approval units within an entity to refine the scope of approval.
* D. You can set the option in Application Settings to include detailed annotations for approval units:
Incorrect. Annotations are cell-level notes, not an Application Settings option tied to approval units; they're managed separately.
The Oracle documentation confirms B and C as accurate descriptions of approval units, making them the correct answers.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Approval Units Overview" (docs.oracle.com, Published
2024-09-15).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Configuring Approval Units" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-12-10, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 80
When importing data into Planning using a scheduled job, which option allows you to load data from the server?

  • A. You refresh the database after importing data
  • B. You select the data locally
  • C. You select the Include Metadata option
  • D. You select data load files from the inbox

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 81
After loading data from external systems, you can quickly perform task that can add or update existing employee and job data using Mass Update forms. Which two actions can you take on the Mass Update forms in Workforce?

  • A. Delete the loaded salary information and then run the data mal for Compensation Data to calculate the updated benefits.
  • B. If an existing employee was not loaded from the load file, you won't be able to add their compensation before first adding them to the source system and reloading the file.
  • C. Add a new record for an existing employee who was not in the load file, and apply configured defaults.
  • D. Change existing properties and then override default assignments and rates.

Answer: C,D


NEW QUESTION # 82
Which statement describes infolets?

  • A. Infolets are predefined dashboards that give you insight into the overall project financials and expense and revenue metrics.
  • B. Infolets help you quickly analyze data and understand key business questions by presenting a visual overview of high-level, aggregated information.
  • C. Infolets help you organize, track, and prioritize your workload.
  • D. Infolets are a form type that provides flexible row management where dimension and member row cells and all data cells are unprotected.
  • E. Infolets give business process designers control over how various roles or groups interact with a business process.

Answer: B

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation, infolets are a feature designed to provide users with quick, visual insights into critical business data. They are not full dashboards, task management tools, or process control mechanisms, but rather compact, high-level representations of aggregated information.
* C. Infolets help you quickly analyze data and understand key business questions by presenting a visual overview of high-level, aggregated information: This statement accurately describes infolets.
They are visual tiles or widgets that display summarized data (e.g., KPIs, trends) to help users grasp key business insights at a glance. Infolets are typically found on the home page or navigation clusters and are customizable to highlight specific metrics relevant to the user's role or application.
* A. Infolets are predefined dashboards that give you insight into the overall project financials and expense and revenue metrics: While infolets provide insights, they are not full "predefined dashboards." Dashboards are more comprehensive, whereas infolets offer concise, targeted views of data.
* B. Infolets help you organize, track, and prioritize your workload: This describes task management or navigation features (e.g., task lists), not infolets, which focus on data visualization rather than workload management.
* D. Infolets give business process designers control over how various roles or groups interact with a business process: Infolets are not about process design or role interaction; they are about displaying data, not controlling processes.
* E. Infolets are a form type that provides flexible row management where dimension and member row cells and all data cells are unprotected: Infolets are not a form type; they are separate from forms and focus on visualization, not data entry or row management.
References
* Oracle Enterprise Performance Management Cloud Documentation: "Using Infolets" (docs.oracle.com, updated 2024). Describes infolets as "visual overviews of high-level, aggregated information to quickly analyze data and answer business questions."
* Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: Defines infolets as tools for presenting summarized data visually for quick analysis.


NEW QUESTION # 83
Your administrator creates a Pipeline definition to manage metadata, and data for your Planning application.
Which statement about pipelines is true?

  • A. Quickly drill into data slices that are important to you with pipelines.
  • B. Use pipelines to coordinate the running of a series of jobs as a single process.
  • C. Use pipelines as a visible, automated, and repeatable system of record for running an application.
  • D. Develop pipelines to guide you through the Planning process.

Answer: B

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, a Pipeline is a feature that allows administrators to define and automate a sequence of jobs (e.g., data imports, metadata updates, calculations) as a single, coordinated process. Pipelines streamline the management of metadata and data by executing multiple tasks in a specified order, ensuring dependencies are met, and providing a repeatable workflow for maintaining the Planning application.
* A. Develop pipelines to guide you through the Planning process: Incorrect. Pipelines are not a planning guide; they are an automation tool for executing jobs, not a process framework.
* B. Use pipelines as a visible, automated, and repeatable system of record for running an application:
Incorrect. While pipelines are automated and repeatable, they are not a "system of record" for running the entire application-they focus on specific job sequences.
* C. Use pipelines to coordinate the running of a series of jobs as a single process: Correct. This aligns with the Oracle definition of pipelines, which orchestrate multiple jobs (e.g., import data, refresh database) into one executable process.
* D. Quickly drill into data slices that are important to you with pipelines: Incorrect. Pipelines are not designed for data analysis or drilling into data slices; they are for job automation.
The Oracle documentation emphasizes that pipelines are used to manage and execute a series of jobs efficiently, making C the true statement.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Working with Pipelines" (docs.oracle.com, Published
2024-10-05).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Automating Tasks with Pipelines" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-11-
30, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 84
Which four job types can be scheduled in Planning?

  • A. Import Data and Export Data
  • B. Data map
  • C. Create Snapshot
  • D. Promote Planning Unit
  • E. Merge Data Slices
  • F. Refresh Database

Answer: A,B,E,F


NEW QUESTION # 85
Which three security design principles can help reduce overall security maintenance and troubleshooting?

  • A. Creating groups over assigning individual access permission to users
  • B. Having a single Identity Domain Administrator to ensure seamless operations
  • C. Using inherited permissions
  • D. Configuring single sign-on (SSO)
  • E. Assigning read access to each cube, and then none and write access within dimension security

Answer: A,C,D


NEW QUESTION # 86
What two levels of workforce detail granularity would you need to perform Merit-Based Planning?

  • A. Job
  • B. Merit
  • C. Employee and Job
  • D. Employee

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024's Workforce module, Merit-Based Planning involves planning salary increases or adjustments based on employee performance (merit). To perform this, you need workforce data at a level of granularity that includes individual employee details. The two levels required are:
* A. Merit: Incorrect. "Merit" is not a granularity level; it's a planning concept or assumption applied to employee data, not a structural level of detail.
* B. Employee and Job: Correct. This level combines employee-specific data (e.g., individual identity) with job-specific data (e.g., role, grade), enabling merit-based adjustments tailored to both the person and their position.
* C. Job: Incorrect. Job-level granularity (e.g., aggregated data for a role) lacks individual employee details, which are necessary for merit-based planning.
* D. Employee: Correct. Employee-level granularity provides the individual data (e.g., current salary, performance rating) needed to calculate merit increases for specific employees.
Merit-Based Planning requires at least Employee-level detail, and often Employee and Job for more precise planning (e.g., tying merit to job roles or grades). The Oracle documentation confirms these as the key granularity levels for this functionality, making B and D the correct answers.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Merit-Based Planning in Workforce" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-10-10).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Workforce Granularity Levels" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-11-15, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 87
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