Prepare Important Exam with CS0-003 Exam Dumps(2024)
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The CySA+ certification is ideal for professionals who are looking to advance their careers in the cybersecurity industry. It is a vendor-neutral certification, which means that it is not tied to any specific technology or product. This makes it a valuable credential for professionals who work with different technologies and tools. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is recognized by many organizations and is a requirement for many cybersecurity roles.
NEW QUESTION # 123
A security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM. The analyst no longer had to jump between tools. Which of the following best describes what the security program did?
- A. Single pane of glass
- B. Security control plane
- C. Data enrichment
- D. Threat feed combination
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A single pane of glass is a term that describes a unified view or interface that integrates multiple tools or data sources into one dashboard or console. A single pane of glass can help improve security operations by providing visibility, correlation, analysis, and alerting capabilities across various security controls and systems. A single pane of glass can also help reduce complexity, improve efficiency, and enhance decision making for security analysts. In this case, a security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM, which provides a single pane of glass for security operations. Official References:
https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack
NEW QUESTION # 124
Which of the following is a commonly used four-component framework to communicate threat actor behavior?
- A. MITRE ATT&CK
- B. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
- C. STRIDE
- D. Cyber Kill Chain
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 125
An organization's threat intelligence team notes a recent trend in adversary privilege escalation procedures. Multiple threat groups have been observed utilizing native Windows tools to bypass system controls and execute commands with privileged credentials. Which of the following controls would be most effective to reduce the rate of success of such attempts?
- A. Implement MFA requirements for all internal resources.
- B. Harden systems by disabling or removing unnecessary services.
- C. Disable administrative accounts for any operations.
- D. Implement controls to block execution of untrusted applications.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Implementing controls to block execution of untrusted applications can prevent privilege escalation attacks that leverage native Windows tools, such as PowerShell, WMIC, or Rundll32. These tools can be used by attackers to run malicious code or commands with elevated privileges, bypassing system security policies and controls. By restricting the execution of untrusted applications, organizations can reduce the attack surface and limit the potential damage of privilege escalation attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 126
A company has the following security requirements:
. No public IPs
* All data secured at rest
. No insecure ports/protocols
After a cloud scan is completed, a security analyst receives reports that several misconfigurations are putting the company at risk. Given the following cloud scanner output:
Which of the following should the analyst recommend be updated first to meet the security requirements and reduce risks?
- A. VM_PRD_Web01
- B. VM_DEV_DB
- C. VM_DEV_Web02
- D. VM_PRD_DB
Answer: A
Explanation:
This VM has a public IP and an open port 80, which violates the company's security requirements of no public IPs and no insecure ports/protocols. It also exposes the VM to potential attacks from the internet. This VM should be updated first to use a private IP and close the port 80, or use a secure protocol such as HTTPS.
Reference [CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition], Chapter 2: Cloud and Hybrid Environments, page 67. [What is a Public IP Address?] [What is Port 80?]
NEW QUESTION # 127
An organization has the following risk mitigation policies:
- Risks without compensating controls will be mitigated first it the risk value is greater than
$50,000.
- Other risk mitigation will be prioritized based on risk value.
The following risks have been identified:
Which of the following is the order of priority for risk mitigation from highest to lowest?
- A. C. D, A, B
- B. B, C, D, A
- C. C, B, A, D
- D. A, C, D, B
- E. D, C, B, A
Answer: C
Explanation:
C is first because of has no compensanting control and the risk value is greater than $50,000 D is last because of has no compensanting control and the risk value is LESS than $50,000
NEW QUESTION # 128
Which of the following is described as a method of enforcing a security policy between cloud customers and cloud services?
- A. SIEM
- B. DMARC
- C. PAM
- D. CASB
Answer: D
Explanation:
A CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) is a security solution that acts as an intermediary between cloud users and cloud providers, and monitors and enforces security policies for cloud access and usage. A CASB can help organizations protect their data and applications in the cloud from unauthorized or malicious access, as well as comply with regulatory standards and best practices. A CASB can also provide visibility, control, and analytics for cloud activity, and identify and mitigate potential threats12
The other options are not correct. DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance) is an email authentication protocol that helps email domain owners prevent spoofing and phishing attacks by verifying the sender's identity and instructing the receiver how to handle unauthenticated messages34 SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a security solution that collects, aggregates, and analyzes log data from various sources across an organization's network, such as applications, devices, servers, and users, and provides real-time alerts, dashboards, reports, and incident response capabilities to help security teams identify and mitigate cyberattacks56 PAM (Privileged Access Management) is a security solution that helps organizations manage and protect the access and permissions of users, accounts, processes, and systems that have elevated or administrative privileges. PAM can help prevent credential theft, data breaches, insider threats, and compliance violations by monitoring, detecting, and preventing unauthorized privileged access to critical resources78
NEW QUESTION # 129
Given the following CVSS string-
CVSS:3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/3:U/C:K/I:K/A:H
Which of the following attributes correctly describes this vulnerability?
- A. The vulnerability does not affect confidentiality.
- B. The vulnerability is network based.
- C. The complexity to exploit the vulnerability is high.
- D. A user is required to exploit this vulnerability.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The vulnerability is network based is the correct attribute that describes this vulnerability, as it can be inferred from the CVSS string. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a framework that assigns numerical scores and ratings to vulnerabilities based on their characteristics and severity. The CVSS string consists of several metrics that define different aspects of the vulnerability, such as the attack vector, the attack complexity, the privileges required, the user interaction, the scope, and the impact on confidentiality, integrity and availability. The first metric in the CVSS string is the attack vector (AV), which indicates how the vulnerability can be exploited. The value of AV in this case is N, which stands for network. This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over a network connection, without physical or logical access to the target system. Therefore, the vulnerability is network based. Official References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
https://packitforwarding.com/index.php/2019/01/10/comptia-cysa-common-vulnerability-scoring-system-c
NEW QUESTION # 130
Which of the following best describes the process of requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame?
- A. Best-effort patching
- B. SLA
- C. MOU
- D. Organizational governance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
An SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a contract or agreement between a service provider and a customer that defines the expected level of service, performance, quality, and availability of the service. An SLA also specifies the responsibilities, obligations, and penalties for both parties in case of non-compliance or breach of the agreement. An SLA can help organizations to ensure that their security services are delivered in a timely and effective manner, and that any security incidents or vulnerabilities are addressed and resolved within a specified time frame. An SLA can also help to establish clear communication, expectations, and accountability between the service provider and the customer12 An MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a document that expresses a mutual agreement or understanding between two or more parties on a common goal or objective. An MOU is not legally binding, but it can serve as a basis for future cooperation or collaboration. An MOU may not be suitable for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not have the same level of enforceability, specificity, or measurability as an SLA.
Best-effort patching is an informal and ad hoc approach to applying security patches or updates to systems or software. Best-effort patching does not follow any defined process, policy, or schedule, and relies on the availability and discretion of the system administrators or users. Best-effort patching may not be effective or efficient for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not guarantee that the patches are applied correctly, consistently, or promptly. Best-effort patching may also introduce new risks or vulnerabilities due to human error, compatibility issues, or lack of testing.
Organizational governance is the framework of rules, policies, procedures, and processes that guide and direct the activities and decisions of an organization. Organizational governance can help to establish the roles, responsibilities, and accountabilities of different stakeholders within the organization, as well as the goals, values, and principles that shape the organizational culture and behavior. Organizational governance can also help to ensure compliance with internal and external standards, regulations, and laws. Organizational governance may not be sufficient for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not specify the details or metrics of the service delivery or performance. Organizational governance may also vary depending on the size, structure, and nature of the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 131
An email hosting provider added a new data center with new public IP addresses. Which of the following most likely needs to be updated to ensure emails from the new data center do not get blocked by spam filters?
- A. DKIM
- B. SPF
- C. SMTP
- D. DMARC
Answer: B
Explanation:
SPF (Sender Policy Framework) is a DNS TXT record that lists authorized sending IP addresses for a given domain. If an email hosting provider added a new data center with new public IP addresses, the SPF record needs to be updated to include those new IP addresses, otherwise the emails from the new data center may fail SPF checks and get blocked by spam filters123 References: 1: Use DMARC to validate email, setup steps 2:
How to set up SPF, DKIM and DMARC: other mail & hosting providers providers 3: Set up SPF, DKIM, or DMARC records for my hosting email
NEW QUESTION # 132
Patches for two highly exploited vulnerabilities were released on the same Friday afternoon.
Information about the systems and vulnerabilities is shown in the tables below:
Which of the following should the security analyst prioritize for remediation?
- A. manning
- B. rogers
- C. brees
- D. brady
Answer: D
Explanation:
Brady should be prioritized for remediation, as it has the highest risk score and the highest number of affected users. The risk score is calculated by multiplying the CVSS score by the exposure factor, which is the percentage of systems that are vulnerable to the exploit. Brady has a risk score of 9 x 0.8 = 7.2, which is higher than any other system. Brady also has 500 affected users, which is more than any other system. Therefore, patching brady would reduce the most risk and impact for the organization. The other systems have lower risk scores and lower numbers of affected users, so they can be remediated later.
NEW QUESTION # 133
An organization discovered a data breach that resulted in Pll being released to the public. During the lessons learned review, the panel identified discrepancies regarding who was responsible for external reporting, as well as the timing requirements. Which of the following actions would best address the reporting issue?
- A. Designating specific roles and responsibilities within the security team and stakeholders to streamline tasks
- B. Researching federal laws, regulatory compliance requirements, and organizational policies to document specific reporting SLAs
- C. Creating a playbook denoting specific SLAs and containment actions per incident type
- D. Defining which security incidents require external notifications and incident reporting in addition to internal stakeholders
Answer: B
Explanation:
Researching federal laws, regulatory compliance requirements, and organizational policies to document specific reporting SLAs is the best action to address the reporting issue. Reporting SLAs are service level agreements that specify the time frame and the format for notifying the relevant authorities and the affected individuals of a data breach. Reporting SLAs may vary depending on the type and severity of the breach, the type and location of the data, the industry and jurisdiction of the organization, and the internal policies of the organization. By researching and documenting the reporting SLAs for different scenarios, the organization can ensure that it complies with the legal and ethical obligations of data breach notification, and avoid any penalties, fines, or lawsuits that may result from failing to report a breach in a timely and appropriate manner12. Reference: When and how to report a breach: Data breach reporting best practices, Incident and Breach Management
NEW QUESTION # 134
You are a penetration tester who is reviewing the system hardening guidelines for a company.
Hardening guidelines indicate the following.
There must be one primary server or service per device.
Only default port should be used
Non- secure protocols should be disabled.
The corporate internet presence should be placed in a protected subnet
Instructions :
Using the available tools, discover devices on the corporate network and the services running on these devices.
You must determine
ip address of each device
The primary server or service each device
The protocols that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 135
A company is deploying new vulnerability scanning software to assess its systems. The current network is highly segmented, and the networking team wants to minimize the number of unique firewall rules. Which of the following scanning techniques would be most efficient to achieve the objective?
- A. Deploy a cloud-based scanner and perform a network scan
- B. Deploy agents on all systems to perform the scans
- C. Deploy a scanner sensor on every segment and perform credentialed scans
- D. Deploy a central scanner and perform non-credentialed scans
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 136
A systems administrator is reviewing after-hours traffic flows from data-center servers and sees regular outgoing HTTPS connections from one of the servers to a public IP address. The server should not be making outgoing connections after hours. Looking closer, the administrator sees this traffic pattern around the clock during work hours as well. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
- A. A rogue network device
- B. Network host IP address scanning
- C. C2 beaconing activity
- D. Data exfiltration
- E. Anomalous activity on unexpected ports
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The most likely explanation for this traffic pattern is C2 beaconing activity. C2 stands for command and control, which is a phase of the Cyber Kill Chain that involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target. C2 beaconing activity is a type of network traffic that indicates a compromised system is sending periodic messages or signals to an attacker's system using various protocols, such as HTTP(S), DNS, ICMP, or UDP. C2 beaconing activity can enable the attacker to remotely control or manipulate the target system or network using various methods, such as malware callbacks, backdoors, botnets, or covert channels.
NEW QUESTION # 137
Given the following CVSS string:
CVSS:3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
Which of the following attributes correctly describes this vulnerability?
- A. The vulnerability does not affect confidentiality.
- B. The vulnerability is network based.
- C. The complexity to exploit the vulnerability is high.
- D. A user is required to exploit this vulnerability.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The vulnerability is network based is the correct attribute that describes this vulnerability, as it can be inferred from the CVSS string. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a framework that assigns numerical scores and ratings to vulnerabilities based on their characteristics and severity. The CVSS string consists of several metrics that define different aspects of the vulnerability, such as the attack vector, the attack complexity, the privileges required, the user interaction, the scope, and the impact on confidentiality, integrity and availability. The first metric in the CVSS string is the attack vector (AV), which indicates how the vulnerability can be exploited. The value of AV in this case is N, which stands for network. This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over a network connection, without physical or logical access to the target system. Therefore, the vulnerability is network based.
NEW QUESTION # 138
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CompTIA CS0-003 certification exam has become increasingly popular among cybersecurity professionals due to the increasing demand for cybersecurity skills. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification exam can help cybersecurity analysts stand out in the job market and demonstrate their expertise to potential employers. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification exam can also help cybersecurity analysts advance their careers and increase their earning potential.
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